• Noel_Skum@sh.itjust.works
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      2
      ·
      1 month ago

      Yeah. Pretty much. The original quote by Marx would’ve been in German I assume - which might make a difference. Looking at the US’s painkiller problems “opiate” is possibly more relevant. It’s a negligible difference either way. (Unless a linguist knows better)

      • MxM111@kbin.social
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        1
        arrow-down
        1
        ·
        edit-2
        1 month ago

        I suspect back then, when original quote was created, most, if not all, opium accessible to the public was natural and not a synthetic opiate. To translate it to opiate is likely incorrect then. That’s why I was a bit confused by correction “opiate”.

        • Noel_Skum@sh.itjust.works
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          1
          ·
          1 month ago

          Historically speaking I imagine that’s true. I’m not sure why anyone felt the need to “correct” the word in the first place. Especially if it transpires they did so incorrectly…