For offside none. It’s either off or on. Wenger is trying to change it though so the attackers body have to be completely ahead of the defender to be counted as offside
They’re not asking if VAR allows the attacker any leeway in offside calls. They’re asking about the accuracy/precision of the technology in generating these images, the answer to which is that the margin of error hasn’t been publicly disclosed.
Presumably though the error is statistically unbiased. Meaning if it could have been less offsides it could equally have been more offsides so in either case the result should stand unless you think it’s biased and within margin of error.
Maybe a dumb question, but what’s the margin of error for VAR?
For offside none. It’s either off or on. Wenger is trying to change it though so the attackers body have to be completely ahead of the defender to be counted as offside
They’re not asking if VAR allows the attacker any leeway in offside calls. They’re asking about the accuracy/precision of the technology in generating these images, the answer to which is that the margin of error hasn’t been publicly disclosed.
“Clearly” as he means it is subjective and adds more bias and uncertainty. It’s much better to be like this where it’s a simple >0.
Presumably though the error is statistically unbiased. Meaning if it could have been less offsides it could equally have been more offsides so in either case the result should stand unless you think it’s biased and within margin of error.