• Pipoca@lemmy.world
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    11 months ago

    Sure - if you assume that fewer than 17.1 m acres of the 62.8 m acre category of “other grain and feed exports” (i.e. less than 27% of it) are animal feed, and none of the wheat exports end up in feed, then the total acreage of food eaten by someone and food eaten by animals are equal.

    That seems pretty unlikely, though.

    Global numbers aren’t great, because diets are really different in different countries. The meat eaten by the average American dwarfs the amount of meat eaten by the average Latvian or Peruvian person.